Located in Middleboro, MA and serving the greater Boston area

RESIDENTIAL/COMMERCIAL HVAC owner operated company providing the best in service. We are licensed and insured but most of all stand behind our work

Mayflower HVAC/R - Frequently asked questions

  1. What pressure does the relief valve on a steam boiler release water?
  2. What pressure does the relief valve on a water boiler release water?
  3. What is the purpose of the siphon loop on my pressuretrol?
  4. What is the normal operation pressure of a steam boiler?
  5. How are relief valves rate?
  6. When is a low water cut off required?
  7. What does the Hartford Loop on my Steam Boiler do?
  8. How is a steam equalizer piped?
  9. What must a steam boiler be equipped with in regard to safety?
  10. What are the 3 things the Tridicator measures?
  11. What does the steam equalizer do?
  12. What is Heat?
  13. Water is the bi-product from the combustion of Hydrogen?
  14. What are the 3 functions of the feed valve as used in boiler?
  15. What is the purpose of a low water cut-off?
  16. How is the low water cut off wired?
  17. What are the 3 functions of a nozzle?
  18. What are the 3 things stamped on the nozzle?
  19. What effect does high viscosity (cold) oil have on how the burner operates?
  20. What can be done to remedy high viscosity oil?
  21. What are 3 types of causes for after drip?
  22. What might cause the end cone to burn off?
  23. What are the differences between a retention head burner and other types?
  24. How are nozzle angles determined?
  25. What is viscosity?
  26. How is the GPH rating of a nozzle determined?
  27. What is flashpoint?
  28. What is the flashpoint of #2 or home heating oil?
  29. What is the oil pump pressure normally set to?
  30. What are the 2 types of integral solenoids (electronic shut off) valves on oil pump.
  31. What pressure against the oil pump regulating piston will cause the piston to close. Shutting off oil to the nozzle?
  32. Vacuum is expressed in what units?
  33. What does the pressure-regulating valve inside the fuel pump do?
  34. At what pressure will the oil need to reach to over come the oil pumps pressure-regulator’s spring tension allowing oil to flow to the nozzle?
  35. What are the functions of the pressure regulator within the fuel pump?
  36. What are the 3 functions of the oil pump?
  37. What 2 methods are employed by domestic oil burners to prepare fuel for combustion?
  38. Why is it not advisable to allow an oil pump to create more than 12” of vacuum?
  39. What is a 2 pipe fuel system?
  40. What type of part is the fuel pump to the burner?
  41. What is a 2 stage fuel pump?
  42. Does 527 CMR 4.00 apply to all fuel oil burners?
  43. Who approves burners for manufactures?
  44. What safety devices are required on a gravity feed burner?
  45. What is required on the name plate of an oil burner?
  46. What is meant by gravity feed burner?
  47. What are the 4 types of oil burners?
  48. How does a stack relay operate?
  49. What is scavenger timing
  50. How does a cad cell relay operate?
  51. What color wire on the primary control is used for interrupted ignition?
  52. How does the cad cell function?
  53. What is a cadmium sulfide cell (cad cell)?
  54. What are the 2 speeds of a burner motor?
  55. What is a transformer?
  56. What is interrupted ignition?
  57. Why must you obtain 0 smoke when the over the fire draft is -.01 to -.02?
  58. What manual combustion test equipment is needed?
  59. What is Net Stack Temperature?
  60. What is the chemical used in the Orsat CO2 analyzer?
  61. When is it required to perform a combustion efficiency test?
  62. What is CO2?
  63. What is CO?
  64. What effect will excess draft have on a boiler?
  65. What effect would air leaks around the fire door and breeching have on CO2?
  66. What causes the greatest heat lose on a boiler?
  67. What is the purpose of the heat anticipator in the T-stat?
  68. Can you use the hi-limit control as an operating control?
  69. What is the purpose of a switching relay?
  70. What is an air pressure switch?
  71. A limit control is actuated how?
  72. Define confined space.
  73. What is 527 CMR 4.00 Form 1?
  74. Define installation
  75. Define alteration
  76. When using a sprinkler head instead of a fire resistive material, IAW 527 CMR 4.00 what must be done?
  77. What permits are required for a burner installation
  78. If an oil burner installation is made under emergency conditions, and application to install must be submitted within how many hours?
  79. After installing and then test firing the burner, how many hours do you have to file with the fire department for a certificate of completion?
  80. What is the function of a reverse acting aqua stat?
  81. What are the requirements for pressure control for steam boiler?
  82. How much air is required to burn one gallon of #2 fuel?
  83. How would you introduce air for combustion into a closed boiler room?
  84. What are the elements of fuel oil?
  85. What is a BTU?
  86. What is primary air?
  87. What is secondary air?
  88. How many BYU’s in one gallon of #2 fuel?
  89. How is the smoke pipe connected?
  90. Define chimney.
  91. Why does draft increase when it is cold outside?
  92. How is a draft booster installed?
  93. If 2 appliances are installed in the same chimney where does the appliance with the greater firing rate enter?
  94. Draft is measured in what units?
  95. Where is draft checked?
  96. When using a power vent, how must the safety switch be wired?
  97. A power vent system consists of what?
  98. What is the gauge of a chimney connector (smoke pipe)?
  99. Chimney is covered under what CMR?
  100. Why is a thimble installed in a chimney?
  101. What is the required chimney connector (smoke pipe) pitch?
  102. Why is draft control necessary?
  103. Chimney connectors throughout its entire length shall?
  104. What is the horizontal length of a chimney connector for a natural draft burner?
  105. What is the difference between an integrated and a non-integrated system?
  106. What effect would air leaks around the fire door and breaching have on CO2?
  107. What gauge wire is used for an oil burner circuit (120V)
  108. What size wire can be used in a low voltage circuit (24V)?
  109. Within how many feet over the burner-boiler or burner-furnace must an electrical thermal switch fused be?
  110. In what case would an additional (2) thermal switches be installed in series and above another switch?
  111. What is the normal voltage found in the low voltage circuit?
  112. What is the minimum fuse size for an oil burner?
  113. What is a load?
  114. How long can flexible electrical conduit be on an oil burner installation?
  115. Where is the control (service switch) to start and stop the burner installed?
  116. What are some loads found in an oil burner circuit?
  117. A voltmeter measures?
  118. An ammeter measures?
  119. What is a fuse?
  120. What is a series circuit?
  121. What is ground?
  122. What is an open circuit?
  123. What is a short circuit?
  124. What is a parallel circuit?
  125. How is a burner wired?
  126. All electrical wiring shall be in accordance with?
  127. Explain and integrated circuit as applied to a circulator?
  128. When shall physical barriers be provided for an oil tank?
  129. How do you size the concrete slab, on which an outside oil tank is mounted?
  130. What must be done to any underground oil tank?
  131. What is the gauge of an indoor oil tank?
  132. What are 5 things that must be on an oil tank tag?
  133. What is the maximum amount of fuel that can be stored in an EXPOSED tank within a building?
  134. What is the purpose of swing joints on an underground tank?
  135. When is a permit to store required?
  136. What is the maximum size for a single indoor oil tank?
  137. Individual tanks larger than 660 gallons must be?
  138. a supply or storage tank located above the lowest story, cellar or basement shall not exceed?
  139. What is the maximum capacity for storage if you are utilizing multiple tanks?
  140. Unenclosed tanks installed inside a building separated by fire separation can be how many gallons?
  141. what is a fire separation wall?
  142. When must a gauge be used on an oil tank?
  143. When are swing joints required?
  144. How far must the vent pipe terminate above grade?
  145. How high above grade must a power vent be located?
  146. How far shall a vent pipe terminate measured vertically and horizontally from any building opening?
  147. What items can not be used on oil supply lines?
  148. Oil lines on new installations that are in direct contact with concrete or earth shall be:
  149. On existing installations, whenever a burner, boiler, furnace tanks is replaced the oil supply line shall be.
  150. On a 2 pipe system the return line enters the tank where?
  151. When an outside tank is exposed to freezing, where must the return line be connected?
  152. The oil supply line to the burner shall be provided with?
  153. What are the requirements of readily accessible valves of an approved automatic type shall be installed in the oil supply line?
  154. What temperature must the fusible link melt?
  155. How is the oil tank pitched?
  156. What is the minimum distance from any fire or flame must an oil tank be?
  157. What is the minimum piping size for a cross over pipe and vent pipe on 2 twin oil tanks?
  158. What is the minimum diameter vent for a 500 gallon or less oil tank?
  159. What is the maximum capacity of the largest exposed (unenclosed) tank in a building?
  160. What is the gauge thickness of an underground tank?
  161. What is the size for oil supply lines for domestic systems (IPS and copper)
  162. How much vacuum is needed to open an oil safety valve? OSV?
  163. What is a boiler?
  164. What is a solenoid?
  165. What is a thermocouple?
  166. What is a wet return (steam)?
  167. What does a flow control (check) valve do?
  168. What is the purpose of a high limit on a triple aquastat?
  169. What 2 purposes does the low limit on a triple acting aquastat serves?
  170. For the burner to continue to run the cad cell ohms reading must be less than?
  171. What is locked rotor amperage?
  172. How many cubic feet of air is required to completely burn one gallon of #2 fuel oil?
  173. 1 pound of #2 oil + 1.36 pounds of air forms?
  174. What is the maximum fuel allowed without a license?
  175. What capacity supply tank must have a fill and vent pipe both terminating out side the building?
  176. What standards must a tank from 10 to 660 gallons meet?
  177. What standard must tanks greater than 660 gallons meet?
  178. A storage tank of more than _____________ capacity. Other than an outside tank, shall be filled only through a fill pipe which terminates outside the building?
  179. What effect does high viscosity (cold) oil have on how an oil burner operates?
  180. What 2 things will result in large droplets of oil leaving the nozzle?
  181. What can be done to remedy an increase in viscosity (Cold oil)?
  182. What are the two windings in a split phase motor?
  183. What device within in a split phase motor controls power would prevent it to start?
  184. Approximately when does the centrifugal switch open, to power off the start winding?
  185. Current draw on the starting of a split phase motor is how many times higher than the full running or full load amps?
  186. Starting torque of a split phase motor is”
  187. Starting torque of a capacitor start motor is?
  188. The start winding creates a different magnetic field than the run winding how?
  189. Name 3 types of flame detectors?
  190. Forced circulation systems can be divided into 2 categories?
  191. What is a non-integrated system?
  192. Explain an integrated system as applied to a circulator?
  193. What does black smoke indicate?
  194. Black smoke and soot are the result of?
  195. What is a puff back?
  196. How do you determine vacuum on an oil line?
  197. A high vacuum on the pump can result in?
  198. How are multiple tankless coils piped?
  199. A permit is required to store fuel oil in excess of how many gallons in or adjacent to any building?
  200. When a separate power vent and hood is employed, the power vent shall be installed?
  201. All joints or connections on the outside or positive pressure side of a power vent needs to be?
  202. A vent system (all) must terminate how far above normal grade when located next to a public walkway?
  203. How far above or within what distance must a vent system (all) be located from a forced (mechanical) air inlet?
  204. Can a power vent terminate under a deck?
  205. Clearance above grade a power vent (all) must terminate?
  206. What distance from any door, window or gravity air inlet must a vent system terminate?
  207. What distance from a noil tank must a vent system termination be?
  208. Distance from an inside corner a power vent system shall terminate?
  209. Should a vent system terminal close to an AC compressor?
  210. What is the voltage of the primary ignition control?
  211. 12 psi of water pushes water how high in the pipes?
  212. what would to small of return air on a furnace do to the burner?
  213. What is the max, voltage to the primary control?
  214. Does the primary control trip on anything other than flame detection?
  215. How much time is the primary control suppose to allow to start the flame on a gas pilot, <3 gallons per hour?
  216. How much time on is the primary set to on a <3 gph oil burner ignition pilot?
  217. Is UL required on boilers (not burners)
  218. On a flame out how quickly must the oil be shut off?
  219. You find soot in the power vent, what does this indicate?
  220. Heat is what?
  221. What regulates chimney?

    Top
  1. What pressure does the relief valve on a steam boiler release water? Answer: 15 psi
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  2. What pressure does the relief valve on a water boiler release water? Answer: 30 psi.
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  3. What is the purpose of the siphon loop on my pressuretrol? Answer: The loop prevents contamination from entering the control.
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  4. What is the normal operation pressure of a steam boiler? Answer: 2-5 psi.
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  5. How are relief valves rate? Answer: psi or Pounds per square inch.
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  6. When is a low water cut off required? Answer: on all steam boilers, and on boiler with an output greater than 400,000 BTU.
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  7. What does the Hartford Loop on my Steam Boiler do? Answer: The loop prevents ALL the water from leaking out of the steam boiler, if there is ever a leak in the wet return piping.
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  8. How is a steam equalizer piped? Answer: The equalizer pipe connects the header to the bottom of the boiler.
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  9. What must a steam boiler be equipped with in regard to safety? Answer:
    1. Pressure control
    2. Low water cut off
    3. 15psi relief valve.

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  10. What are the 3 things the Tridicator measures? Answer
    1. Water Temp.
    2. Pressure
    3. Altitude of the system

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  11. What does the steam equalizer do? Answer:
    1. equalizes the pressure between the top and bottom of the boiler
    2. Acts as a drip line for the condensate formed within the header.
    3. Helps the condensate return to the header.
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  12. What is Heat? Answer: A form of energy.
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  13. Water is the bi-product from the combustion of Hydrogen? Answer: H2O or water.
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  14. What are the 3 functions of the feed valve as used in boiler? Answer:
    1. Reduces water from street pressure to boiler pressure
    2. Automatically maintains boiler water level.
    3. Acts as a check valve. 9-11 model.

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  15. What is the purpose of a low water cut-off? Answer: To prevent the oil burner from operating if there is not enough water in the boiler.
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  16. How is the low water cut off wired? Answer: The low water cut-off is a safety device, and must be wired in series.. IT is wired to the main burner supply circuit.
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  17. What are the 3 functions of a nozzle? Answer:
    1. Meter the oil
    2. Atomize the oil
    3. Pattern the oil

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  18. What are the 3 things stamped on the nozzle? Answer:
    1. GPH, Gallons per hour
    2. Spray angle in degrees.
    3. Spray pattern, such as solid. Hollow….

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  19. What effect does high viscosity (cold) oil have on how the burner operates? Answer: The oil will not atomize properly causing a wide variety of problem.
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  20. What can be done to remedy high viscosity oil? Answer: Can be heated, Can be mixed with a lighter grade of oil.
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  21. What are 3 types of causes for after drip? Answer:
    1. Poor positive cut-off, or bad clean cut valve.
    2. Air in the nozzle or draw tube.
    3. Excessive heat in the area of the nozzle, Burner head could be too far into boiler.

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  22. What might cause the end cone to burn off? Answer:
    1. A positive draft condition
    2. After drip
    3. Excessive heat in the area of the nozzle.

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  23. What are the differences between a retention head burner and other types? Answer: On retention head burners the flame is held very close to the combustion head, the flame is normally sharp and hard, and in most causes is noisier than the others.
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  24. How are nozzle angles determined? Answer: By the shape of the combustion chamber.
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  25. What is viscosity? Answer: Viscosity is measurement for the resistant of the liquid to flow.
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  26. How is the GPH rating of a nozzle determined? Answer: By the size of the orifice and the pressure of the oil. Nozzles are rated at 100psi.
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  27. What is flashpoint? Answer: It is the temperature at which a substance supports combustion.
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  28. What is the flashpoint of #2 or home heating oil? Answer: 115 degrees Fahrenheit
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  29. What is the oil pump pressure normally set to? Answer: Most pumps are set to operate at 100psi.
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  30. What are the 2 types of integral solenoids (electronic shut off) valves on oil pump. Answer:
  31. Blocking
  32. Dumping
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  33. What pressure against the oil pump regulating piston will cause the piston to close. Shutting off oil to the nozzle? Answer: 80 psi, or 20% less.
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  34. Vacuum is expressed in what units? Answer: Inches of Mercury
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  35. What does the pressure-regulating valve inside the fuel pump do? Answer: It controls the oil discharged to the nozzle.
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  36. At what pressure will the oil need to reach to over come the oil pumps pressure-regulator’s spring tension allowing oil to flow to the nozzle? Answer: 80-95% (100psi on the state exam)
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  37. What are the functions of the pressure regulator within the fuel pump? Answer:
    1. Regulate pressure
    2. Provide a positive cut-off
    3. Bypass the excess oil back to the gears.

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  38. What are the 3 functions of the oil pump? Answer:
    1. Draw oil from the tank
    2. Prepare oil for combustion
    3. Deliver oil to the nozzle

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  39. What 2 methods are employed by domestic oil burners to prepare fuel for combustion? Answer
    1. Atomization
    2. Vaporization

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  40. Why is it not advisable to allow an oil pump to create more than 12” of vacuum? Answer: The oil could begin to emulsify (breakdown) before reaching the fuel pump.
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  41. What is a 2 pipe fuel system? Answer: It is an arrangement for a fuel pump that has a supply and a return line.
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  42. What type of part is the fuel pump to the burner? Answer: Integral
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  43. What is a 2 stage fuel pump? Answer: Two sets of gears, on that draws the oil from the tank and one that prepares the oil for combustion.
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  44. Does 527 CMR 4.00 apply to all fuel oil burners? Answer: No it does not apply to burners installed on steam boilers 9HP or larger, or boilers that operate above 15 psi.
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  45. Who approves burners for manufactures? Answer: Fire Marshal or an approved laboratory.
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  46. What safety devices are required on a gravity feed burner? Answer:
    1. Constant level valve
    2. Thermal valve at tank and burner (firematic)
    3. Over flow line or vent line terminating in a U-bend above the height of oil.

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  47. What is required on the name plate of an oil burner? Answer:
    1. Manufacturers name/address
    2. Approval number
    3. Date of approval
    4. Name of burner

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  48. What is meant by gravity feed burner? Answer: It uses only gravity to deliver fuel from the tank to the burner.
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  49. What are the 4 types of oil burners? Answer
    1. Power Burner
    2. Gravity Burner
    3. Pressure Feed Burner
    4. Pot
    5. Sleeve

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  50. How does a stack relay operate? Answer: Operates by sensing a rise in temperature to determine the presence or absence of a flame.
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  51. What is scavenger timing Answer: It is the time allotted for the by-products of combustion to be removed from the combustion chamber before allowing the primary to restart the burner.
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  52. How does a cad cell relay operate? Answer: Operates by a light sensitive device to detect the presence or absence of the flame. Resistance lowers when the flame is detected.
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  53. What color wire on the primary control is used for interrupted ignition? Answer: Blue
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  54. How does the cad cell function? Answer: The cad cell controls the safety (primary) switch heater; if light is sensed it’s resistance is lowered allowing the heater to drop out of the circuit allowing the primary control to keep the burner operating. If light is not sensed the heater remains in the circuit causing the bi-metal element to warp forcing the primary control to shut down the burner.
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  55. What is a cadmium sulfide cell (cad cell)? Answer: A light sensitive device used to detect the presence or absence of a flame.
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  56. What are the 2 speeds of a burner motor? Answer:
    1. 1725 RPM
    2. 3450 RPM

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  57. What is a transformer? Answer: An electro-magnet device that is used to produce a variety of secondary voltages from a variety of primary voltages. Can step-up or step down voltages.
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  58. What is interrupted ignition? Answer: It is when the ignition transformer/igniter is dropped out of the circuit when the burner has detected a flame.
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  59. Why must you obtain 0 smoke when the over the fire draft is -.01 to -.02? Answer: To allow for any minor changes in daily conditions or weather.
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  60. What manual combustion test equipment is needed? Answer:
    1. Draft gauge
    2. Smoke tester and scale
    3. Orsat tester (CO2)
    4. Stack thermometer
    5. Combustion efficiency slide ruler.

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  61. What is Net Stack Temperature? Answer: After obtaining the temperature of the stack gases, you must subtract the ambient room temperature to get the Net Stack Temp.
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  62. What is the chemical used in the Orsat CO2 analyser? Answer: Potassium Hydroxide (KOH)
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  63. When is it required to perform a combustion efficiency test? Answer: In accordance with the code-after any alteration or installation. As a common practice-after any adjustments have been made to the burner.
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  64. What is CO2? Answer: Carbon Dioxide.
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  65. What is CO? Answer: Carbon Monoxide
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  66. What effect will excess draft have on a boiler? Answer: It will increase the stack temperature, and decrease CO2 readings.
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  67. What effect would air leaks around the fire door and breeching have on CO2? Answer: Air leeks would lower CO2 readings.
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  68. What causes the greatest heat lose on a boiler? Answer: Unburned carbon or Soot.
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  69. What is the purpose of the heat anticipator in the T-stat? Answer: To prevent an override in the temperature of the space being heated.
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  70. Can you use the hi-limit control as an operating control? Answer: No, it is for safety reasons only.
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  71. What is the purpose of a switching relay? Answer: Allows the operation of line voltage, from a low voltage control.
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  72. What is an air pressure switch? Answer: An electrical switch designed to prove that proper draft has been established.
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  73. A limit control is actuated how? Answer: Temperature or Pressure
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  74. Define confined space. Answer: A space whose volume is less than 50 cu ft. per 1,000 btu/hr of the input rating of the appliance.
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  75. What is 527 CMR 4.00 Form 1? Answer: A form required to be submitted to the fire department upon completion of an installation or alteration.
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  76. Define installation Answer: It is a burner, unit (boiler/furnace), oil storage, and all associated piping and wiring
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  77. Define alteration Answer: It is the addition or major change that significantly affects the characteristics of combustion or any change in grade of oil being used.
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  78. When using a sprinkler head instead of a fire resistive material, IAW 527 CMR 4.00 what must be done? Answer
    1. Must be centered over unit
    2. Must be rated at 250-300*F
    3. Must be supplied from the domestic water
    4. Must not be dead headed
    5. Installed IAW plumbing code

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  79. What permits are required for a burner installation Answer:
    1. Permit to alter/install
    2. Permit to store
    3. Certificate of completion
    4. Possibly an electrical or plumbing permit

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  80. If an oil burner installation is made under emergency conditions, and application to install must be submitted within how many hours? Answer: 24 hours, excluding sat, Sun and holiday.
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  81. After installing and then test firing the burner, how many hours do you have to file with the fire department for a certificate of completion? Answer: 72 hours, excluding Sat., Sun, and holidays.
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  82. What is the function of a reverse acting aqua stat? Answer: Circulator control
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  83. What are the requirements for pressure control for steam boiler? Answer:
    1. Must fall within the limits of the unit
    2. Must be easily readable and adjustable.

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  84. How much air is required to burn one gallon of #2 fuel? Answer: 1540 cu ft.
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  85. How would you introduce air for combustion into a closed boiler room? Answer:
    1. install a properly sized opening
    2. Duct fresh air in from the outside

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  86. What are the elements of fuel oil? Answer: Carbon (85%)m Hydrogen (15%)
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  87. What is a BTU? Answer: The amount of heat required to raise or lower one pound of water one degree.
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  88. What is primary air? Answer: Air which is already in the combustion chamber
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  89. What is secondary air? Answer: Air that is added by the burner and is necessary for combustion
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  90. How many BYU’s in one gallon of #2 fuel? Answer: 140,000
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  91. How is the smoke pipe connected? Answer:
    1. 3 screws, ½” from seam
    2. male end facing flue
    3. min. number of elbows, direct as possible
    4. 6 screws required when over 8”

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  92. Define chimney. Answer: Is a primary vertical structure made of masonry or other approved materials for the removal of the products of combustion.
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  93. Why does draft increase when it is cold outside? Answer: Natural draft depends upon thermal currents and when it is cold outside there is a greater temperature difference.
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  94. How is a draft booster installed? Answer: It must be installed to shut off the fuel supply to the main burner in the event of failure.
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  95. If 2 appliances are installed in the same chimney where does the appliance with the greater firing rate enter? Answer: Below the smaller flue pipe.
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  96. Draft is measured in what units? Answer: Inches of Water Column
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  97. Where is draft checked? Answer: Over the fire, and Flue pipe close to breach
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  98. When using a power vent, how must the safety switch be wired? Answer: In series with the burner
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  99. A power vent system consists of what? Answer:
    1. Power vent
    2. Vent hood
    3. Air pressure switch
    4. Post purge control

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  100. What is the gauge of a chimney connector (smoke pipe)? Answer: 26 Ga. (<=6”); 24 ga (6-10”)
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  101. Chimney is covered under what CMR? Answer: 780 CMR: Massachusetts building code.
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  102. Why is a thimble installed in a chimney? Answer: To facilitate removal of the chimney connector (smoke pipe) for cleaning.
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  103. What is the required chimney connector (smoke pipe) pitch? Answer: At least ¼” to the foot from the appliance to the chimney.
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  104. Why is draft control necessary? Answer:
    1. To stabilize the flame in the combustion chamber
    2. Allow the heat exchanger to absorb as much heat as it is possible.

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  105. Chimney connectors throughout its entire length shall? Answer: Be readily accessible for inspection, cleaning and replacement.
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  106. What is the horizontal length of a chimney connector for a natural draft burner? Answer: Not to exceed 10 feet, unless a draft booster is used.
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  107. What is the difference between an integrated and a non-integrated system? Answer: On an integrated system the T-stat directly controls the burner, on a non-integrated system the t-stat controls something than the burner.
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  108. What effect would air leaks around the fire door and breaching have on CO2? Answer: Air leaks would lower the CO2
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  109. What gauge wire is used for an oil burner circuit (120V) Answer: 14 gauge for 15A residential, 12 gauge 20A commercial.
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  110. What size wire can be used in a low voltage circuit (24V)? Answer: 18 or 20 gauge wire.
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  111. Within how many feet over the burner-boiler or burner-furnace must an electrical thermal switch fused be? Answer: With 6 feet.
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  112. In what case would an additional (2) thermal switches be installed in series and above another switch? Answer: Ceilings exceeding 12 feet.
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  113. What is the normal voltage found in the low voltage circuit? Answer: 24 V
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  114. What is the minimum fuse size for an oil burner? Answer: 15 a residential, 20 amp commercial
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  115. What is a load? Answer: A device that converts electrical energy to some other form of energy in order to do work.
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  116. How long can flexible electrical conduit be on an oil burner installation? Answer: No longer than 36”, unless provided by the manufacture.
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  117. Where is the control (service switch) to start and stop the burner installed? Answer: Where the operator can view the fire, a maximum of 3 ft. from the burner.
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  118. What are some loads found in an oil burner circuit? Answer:
    1. Motor
    2. Electromagnetic coils (solenoid)
    3. Transformer
    4. Heaters

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  119. A voltmeter measures? Answer: The difference in electrical pressure between 2 points.
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  120. An ammeter measures? Answer: Rate at which the electric current flows Q; Where is the emergency switch located? Answer: It must be located outside of the room from which the burner, plainly marked, clearly visible and readily accessible.
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  121. What is a fuse? Answer: Safety device in an electrical circuit designed to melt (open) if the current acceding its rate is present in the circuit.
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  122. What is a series circuit? Answer: A circuit that only contains one path for the current to flow.
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  123. What is ground? Answer: Common electrical point of zero potential.
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  124. What is an open circuit? Answer: A break exists in a complete conducting pathway.
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  125. What is a short circuit? Answer: An accidental path of low resistance which passes abnormal amount of current.
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  126. What is a parallel circuit? Answer: A circuit having more than one path connected to a common voltage source
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  127. How is a burner wired? Answer: All switches are in series, and all loads are in parallel.
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  128. All electrical wiring shall be in accordance with? Answer: 527 CMR 4.00 Massachusetts electrical code.
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  129. Explain and integrated circuit as applied to a circulator? Answer: The T-stat would control the circulator relay.
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  130. When shall physical barriers be provided for an oil tank? Answer: When installed inside garages or other areas subject to vehicular impact.
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  131. How do you size the concrete slab, on which an outside oil tank is mounted? Answer: It must be placed on a continuous concrete slab at least 4” thick and it must extend 8” from the outside edges of the tank. The tank must be 12” from the outside of the structure.
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  132. What must be done to any underground oil tank? Answer:
    1. It must be inspected prior to burial
    2. It must have swing joints on all piping
    3. It must be provided with a means for determining the amount of fuel remaining
    4. It must be properly protected from corrosion and external damage.

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  133. What is the gauge of an indoor oil tank? Answer: 12 ga.
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  134. What are 5 things that must be on an oil tank tag? Answer:
    1. Name address of manufacture
    2. Date manufactured
    3. Capacity in gallons
    4. Stamp (certification of pressure test)
    5. Gauge (thickness of the metal)

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  135. What is the maximum amount of fuel that can be stored in an EXPOSED tank within a building? Answer: 660 gallons
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  136. What is the purpose of swing joints on an underground tank? Answer: to allow for settling
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  137. When is a permit to store required? Answer: when storing more than 10 gallons but not more than 10,000 gallons.
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  138. What is the maximum size for a single indoor oil tank? Answer: 660
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  139. Individual tanks larger than 660 gallons must be? Answer: Enclosed (fire separation)
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  140. a supply or storage tank located above the lowest story, cellar or basement shall not exceed? Answer: 60 gallons (except; when no usable space beneath)
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  141. What is the maximum capacity for storage if you are utilizing multiple tanks? Answer: 1320 gallons.
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  142. Unenclosed tanks installed inside a building separated by fire separation can be how many gallons? Answer: 1320
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  143. what is a fire separation wall? Answer: 2 hour rated fire resistive assemblies (conform with MA building code)
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  144. When must a gauge be used on an oil tank? Answer: when the level of oil is not maintained by an automatic pump
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  145. When are swing joints required? Answer: Any time there is a chance of settling
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  146. How far must the vent pipe terminate above grade? Answer: At least 3 ft from grade.
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  147. How high above grade must a power vent be located? Answer: At least 1 ft.
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  148. How far shall a vent pipe terminate measured vertically and horizontally from any building opening? Answer: Not less than 2 ft. (fixed sash window shall not be considered an opening)
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  149. What items can not be used on oil supply lines? Answer:
    1. Teflon tape
    2. Solder having a melting point of less than 500*F
    3. Compression type fittings.

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  150. Oil lines on new installations that are in direct contact with concrete or earth shall be: Answer: Enclosed with a continuous non-metallic sleeve that extends out a minimum of 4 inches on each end.
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  151. On existing installations, whenever a burner, boiler, furnace tanks is replaced the oil supply line shall be. Answer: Replaced and enclosed with a continuous sleeve as for new installations or, an oil safety valve shall be installed at the tank end of the oil supply line.
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  152. On a 2 pipe system the return line enters the tank where? Answer: Top
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  153. When an outside tank is exposed to freezing, where must the return line be cooneted? Answer: Top
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  154. The oil supply line to the burner shall be provided with? Answer: A listed filter (does not apply to gravity feed)
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  155. What are the requirements of readily accessible valves of an approved automatic type shall be installed in the oil supply line? Answer: One near each burner, and one close to each supply tank so as to automatically stop the flow of oil in the case of a fire.
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  156. What temperature must the fusible link melt? Answer: 165*F
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  157. How is the oil tank pitched? Answer: Toward the bottom opening
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  158. What is the minimum distance from any fire or flame must an oil tank be? Answer: Not less than 5 ft. for tanks larger than 10 gallons., not less than 2 ft for tanks smaller than 10 gallons.
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  159. What is the minimum piping size for a cross over pipe and vent pipe on 2 twin oil tanks? Answer: 2”
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  160. What is the minimum diameter vent for a 500 gallon or less oil tank? Answer: 1-1/4” but not smaller than the fill pipe.
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  161. What is the maximum capacity of the largest exposed (unenclosed) tank in a building? Answer: 660
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  162. What is the gauge thickness of an underground tank? Answer: 10 ga.
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  163. What is the size for oil supply lines for domestic systems (IPS and copper) Answer 3/8” IPS 3/8” od copper
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  164. How much vacuum is needed to open an oil safety valve? OSV? Answer: 3 inches
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  165. What is a boiler? Answer: A closed vessel which steam is generated or which water is heated by fire.
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  166. What is a solenoid? Answer: An electromagnetic coil that contains a moving plunger
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  167. What is a thermocouple? Answer: A junction of 2 dissimilar metals that produces a voltage when heated
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  168. What is a wet return (steam)? Answer: The part of the return that is completely filled with water or condensation.
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  169. What does a flow control (check) valve do? Answer: Keeps the heated water in the boiler and does not allow gravity circulation.
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  170. What is the purpose of a high limit on a triple aquastat? Answer: It turns off the burner when the water temperature reaches the set point, automatically resets after dropping past the set point 10 degree differential.
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  171. What 2 purposes does the low limit on a triple acting aquastat serves? Answer:
    1. Keeps the boiler at a certain temperature,
    2. Allows the circulator to operate when boiler water is hot.

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  172. For the burner to continue to run the cad cell ohms reading must be less than? Answer: 1660 ohms, but not zero.
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  173. What is locked rotor amperage? Answer: Amperage that can be measured for a brief instant when motor first starts, sometimes called start-up amperage.
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  174. How many cubic feet of air is required to completely burn one gallon of #2 fuel oil? Answer: 1540 cubic feet
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  175. 1 pound of #2 oil + 1.36 pounds of air forms? Answer:
  177. 18 lb water
  178. 1
  179. 02 lb Nitrogen
  181. 16lb Carbon dioxide
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  182. What is the maximum fuel allowed without a license? Answer: 10,000 gallons
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  183. What capacity supply tank must have a fill and vent pipe both terminating out side the building? Answer: Larger than 10 gallons
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  184. What standards must a tank from 10 to 660 gallons meet? Answer: Standard UL 80
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  185. What standard must tanks greater than 660 gallons meet? Answer: Standard UL142
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  186. A storage tank of more than _____________ capacity. Other than an outside tank, shall be filled only through a fill pipe which terminates outside the building? Answer: More than 60 gallons.
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  187. What effect does high viscosity (cold) oil have on how an oil burner operates? Answer: The oil will not atomize properly causing a wide variety of problems. (thicker cone of oil, actually increases the flow rate of the nozzle creating much larger droplets of oil).
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  188. What 2 things will result in large droplets of oil leaving the nozzle? Answer: Cold oil (increases oil viscosity) Reducing pump pressure
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  189. What can be done to remedy an increase in viscosity (Cold oil)? Answer
    1. Pre-heat oil
    2. Increase pump pressure (re-size nozzle)
    3. Lighter grade oil
    4. Mix in a lighter grade oil (HOT)

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  190. What are the two windings in a split phase motor? Answer: Start, Run
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  191. What device within in a split phase motor controls power would prevent it to start? Answer: Centrifugal or inertia switch.
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  192. Approximately when does the centrifugal switch open, to power off the start winding? Answer: 75% of normal running speed.
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  193. Current draw on the starting of a split phase motor is how many times higher than the full running or full load amps? Answer: 6- 8 times.
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  194. Starting torque of a split phase motor is” Answer: 150-200% of the full load.
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  195. Starting torque of a capacitor start motor is? Answer: 300-350% of the full load torque.
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  196. The start winding creates a different magnetic field than the run winding how? Answer: With smaller wire, higher resistance
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  197. Name 3 types of flame detectors? Answer:
    1. Photo cell
    2. Lead sulfide (PbS), infared rays in the flame
    3. Ultraviolet UV

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  198. Forced circulation systems can be divided into 2 categories? Answer: Integrated, non-integrated
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  199. What is a non-integrated system? Answer: Separate control of the circulator and oil burner. (t-stat controls something other than the burner)
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  200. Explain an integrated system as applied to a circulator? Answer: The t-stat would control the circulator relay.
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  201. What does black smoke indicate? Answer: Problem with the air delivery system, clogged intake.
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  202. Black smoke and soot are the result of? Answer: Incomplete combustion, because of inadequate air supplied to mix with the fuel oil.
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  203. What is a puff back? Answer: An explosion caused by a delayed ignition of an air-oil mixture in the combustion chamber
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  204. How do you determine vacuum on an oil line? Answer: 1” of vacuum every 10’ of horizontal run., 1” of vacuum every 1’ of vertical lift.
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  205. A high vacuum on the pump can result in? Answer: Vapor lock in the suction line.
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  206. How are multiple tankless coils piped? Answer: Parallel
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  207. A permit is required to store fuel oil in excess of how many gallons in or adjacent to any building? Answer: 10 gallons.
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  208. When a separate power vent and hood is employed, the power vent shall be installed? Answer: As close to the vent hood as possible.
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  209. All joints or connections on the outside or positive pressure side of a power vent needs to be? Answer: sealed with high temp sealant.
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  210. A vent system (all) must terminate how far above normal grade when located next to a public walkway? Answer: not less than 7 Ft.
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  211. How far above or within what distance must a vent system (all) be located from a forced (mechanical) air inlet? Answer: 3 ft above any forced air inlet within 10 ft (exception is the air intake for the burner)
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  212. Can a power vent terminate under a deck? Answer: Yes, if the appliance does not provide domestic hot water and is at least 4 feet below the deck. Deck cannot be enclosed to restrict dilution of exhaust.
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  213. Clearance above grade a power vent (all) must terminate? Answer: 12 inches
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  214. What distance from any door, window or gravity air inlet must a vent system terminate? Answer: 4 ft below, 4 ft horizontally from or 1 ft above.
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  215. What distance from a noil tank must a vent system termination be? A 3 ft horizontally from, or not directly above.
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  216. Distance from an inside corner a power vent system shall terminate? Answer: not less than 3 ft, or in accordance with the manufacture’s instruction.
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  217. Should a vent system terminal close to an AC compressor? Answer: No, combustion by products can damage components.
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  218. What is the voltage of the primary ignition control? Answer: 120V 10k-14k on the transformer.
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  219. 12 psi of water pushes water how high in the pipes? Answer: 1.31 per psi.
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  220. what would to small of return air on a furnace do to the burner? Answer: IT would cause the burner to short cycle on the high limit.
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  221. What is the max, voltage to the primary control? Answer: 150 to ground
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  222. Does the primary control trip on anything other than flame detection? Answer: No, but other safety devices are often wired in series with the primary control.
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  223. How much time is the primary control suppose to allow to start the flame on a gas pilot, <3 gallons per hour? Answer: 15 sec
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  224. How much time on is the primary set to on a <3 gph oil burner ignition pilot? Answer: < 45 sec
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  225. Is UL required on boilers (not burners) Answer: No one has been able to answer this question for me, but UL is a listing.
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  226. On a flame out how quickly must the oil be shut off? Answer: 3 seconds.
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  227. You find soot in the power vent, what does this indicate? Answer: Check for blocked air, lint, or cat hair, saw dust.
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  228. Heat is what? Answer: Energy.
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  229. What regulates chimney? Answer: MA State building codes 780.
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Did you know?

An oil burner clean-out every year is critical to the life of a boiler or furnace.....and the payback is huge.

Neglect just pumps money out your chimney. Usually during a clean-out other things are recommended too.

Gas is good. It is low maintenance but not no maintenance. Regular PM yields longer life and better efficiency.